Explanation of Types of Ownership in Spain

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Posted and filed under Legal Issues in Spain.

There are many times that clients come to us regarding the transfer of property during a divorce and do not understand the terms we use such as “division of tenancy in common”.

There is also a lot of confusion when we deal with probates. This is because of how most property is held in Spain, so let’s start with that.

In Spain, properties are generally purchased in joint names as tenants in common, which means that each person owns a share in the property (either in equal shares or different percentages).

This has a huge impact when someone passes away as when the property is owned jointly, the other share or shares do not pass to the surviving co-owners and can only be transferred into their names (to allow a sale for example) by a probate process.

This is proving who the next of kin is (which is why a Will is essential and cost-saving, even if it is a Home Country Will only. However not having a Spanish Will does make matters a bit more complicated and costly. Our advice to any Spanish property owners has a Spanish Will if possible, but if not it is essential if some type of Will is in place.

Division of Common Property

It is possible to do a division of jointly owned property, providing only one owner is left after the transaction by a division of joint tenancy or ownership.

There is a way this can be done legally as part of a divorce agreement with lower taxes than a purchase and sale or a donation.

In England and Ireland there is the concept of tenancy in common, and so if someone is married, even if property assets are not in both spouses names, there is the concept of rights to part of those assets on the part of the spouse not named as owner, which would be the division of a tenancy in common of the properties.

Spain does not strictly speak­ing have this concept, but if a divorce/separation agreement is from the UK or Ireland, we can prepare a deed to transfer the property by a division of tenancy in common based on that. Or we will need evidence of payment to the outgoing party/parties. Thus stamp duty would only be 1.5% in the Valencia Community (as at January 2020, but this could change) on the outgoing share. Donation taxes range from just over 7% to 34% depending on the value of the property, and a purchase and sale are expensive in taxes.

Under Spanish Law, the person keeping the property pays the stamp duty and land registry fees. The other costs can be agreed between the parties.

There are possible risks with this procedure regarding taxes in the future and we would explain these.

There is also this manner of splitting property owned in a sole name in some instances.

This is because of the regime known as community property whereby property acquired during a marriage (except for gifts or inheritances), usually owned jointly by both spouses and divided upon divorce, annulment, or death, can also be automatically presumed by law when in a sole name, as joint ownership as tenants in common (and either decided amicably or by a Court Judge).

Matrimonial Property Regimes in Spain

In Spain, the matrimonial property regime that applies to spouses is that which is stipulated in a marriage contract, which can be three things:-

– community of acquisitions (sociedad de gananciales) – this is where all property acquired by both spouses after the marriage is held equally.

– separation of property – each spouse retains what he/she brought into the marriage and becomes the sole owner of the property he/she acquires during the marriage. Where it cannot be established to whom the property belongs, there is a presumption of a half share for each spouse.

– or participation – both of the spouses have the right to share what the other brought to the marriage and what is gained during the marriage.

In the absence of a contract, the applicable matrimonial property regime is the first one, property held equally.

Spanish Solutions are extremely experienced in dealing with all types of legal ownership, death and probate, divorce and separation of assets. Please contact us with any query you may have.

121 Comments

  • Sundaramma gray

    Hi

    I have a question about my property in spain, I divorced my husband in 1998. we in English law devide the goods between us, I got the flat. I have not heard from him since 1998 and I do not know where he lives, I live in Australia. Is there any way I can sell my property without his consent, he has never contributed to the upkeep of the apartment, I would like to know if there is any way you could help me.

    Mrs S Grey

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Morning Mrs Gray,

      If you have carried out the “División of Joint Tenancy” through the Spanish courts and have the title deeds soley in your name, you will be able to sell the property, no problem.

      If this has not been carried out and your ex-husband is still named on the title deeds, you will need his consent to sell the apartment. He would also have to be present at the Notary in Spain for the sale of the property or have a Solicitor act on his behalf with power of attorney, we hope this helps.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Richard Sanz

    How can I resolve selling my half of a property that I share with my brother if he won’t talk to me to work out an amicable solution?

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Morning Richard,

      This is very difficult. But no two owners can be forced to share joint ownership of a property legally if they won’t want to.

      If you cannot work it out amicably and one person buys the other out (a division of joint ownership) then you can take it to Court and a Judge will resolve the matter. It will cost more, but is a solution.

      If you email us the deeds and suma/IBI we would be happy to provide a quote for the division of joint ownership and for taking this matter to Court. We hope this helps.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Pat Noone

    Hi
    We have a property in Tenerife which is registered in 3 names. Husband, wife and son. At the time it was agreed that husband and wife own 45% each and son owns 10%. We drew up an agreement between the 3 of us and had it independently witnessed. I no longer want to own the 10% and will give to my parents. I don’t really mind if they pay me or not as they didn’t look for any money from me when it was purchased. The title deeds are in the 3 names without mentioning the 10%
    What is the best way to do this and does it cost money?
    Thank you

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Morning Pat,

      We understand.

      To remove your name from the deeds would be called a división of ownership. Our paralegal, Amanda, will be in contact with you shortly to discuss this matter in more detail

      In the meantime, please see below, a link to our blog discussing this matter.

      https://www.spanishsolutions.net/case-studies/division-of-ownership-spain/

      Should you have any further queries please do not hesitate to contact us.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • TMcHenry

    Hi,
    My husband and I are planning to Spain in the next year or two. Though we will buy a house jointly, we also each maintain separate investment accounts. I do not have children but my husband has two daughters. If my husband dies before me, will the investment accounts in my name be considered joint property and part of his estate or just the house and his accounts?
    Thank you

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Morning Ms McHenry,

      Thank you for your enquiry. If your husband dies before you, the probate will include his share of the property, any investments, bank accounts and any cars which are in his name. If your investments do not have his name stated, they will not be included in the probate. We hope this helps.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • S. Casoojee

    My husband and I have bought a property in both our names, the mortgage has just finished and we’re about to put it on our names. I have contributed equally, give or take. I want to ensure that upon my death, my son gets my half, do I need to specify this at ‘transfer of deeds’ point, any particular type of joint ownership?

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Morning Ms Caoojee,

      Thank you for your enquiry.

      To ensure your half of the property goes to your son, you will have to make a Spanish will. Anyone who has assets in Spain, should have a Spanish will in place.

      Should you need any further information or assistance with this matter please do not hesitate to contact us, Spanish Solutions deal with wills on a daily basis and would be delighted to help.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Helen Lochore

    My husband and I jointly bought a house in Orihuela region in 2007. He unfortunately passed away in July 2019 aged 55. We have Spanish wills, a lawyer is acting on my behalf, I don’t need to pay inheritance tax but I do need to pay plusvalia. Why? How much is usually charged. Any advice appreciated thanks

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Morning Helen,

      We are sorry to hear about your husband.

      Amanda, our paralegal will be in contact with you shortly to discuss this matter further.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Kate Lambert

    Hi there,
    My husband bought a holiday home in Lanzerote just over a year ago. We are both UK resident and he doesn’t have any wills (Spanish or British). I am concerned that should he die, the property would not automatically pass to me (his spouse) as it would in the UK and have been warned that he should get a Spanish will. Although my husband purchased the property in his own name, I have put a lot of money into the renovations and want to ensure the protection of my assets. My husband says we don’t need a Spanish will. He has two sons from a previous marriage and I believe that they could inherit the entire property on his death. Am I right to be concerned?

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Afternoon Kate,

      Thank you for your enquiry.

      Amanda, from our legal department, will be in contact with you shortly to discuss this matter further.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Sue Cooney

    My partner has passed away and we have a house in both our names we have no will !! We have been together 22 years I pay the bills through the bank in Spain do I get the house solely in my name, if I have a letter of administration

    Thank you

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Sue, I am so sorry to hear this. His Spanish assets will go (through a Spanish probate process) to his next of kin. I am going to email you as need to ask you some questions. With kind regards.

  • vincent smyth

    Hello my partner and I split up can I buy her out of our owned apt in la mata I would like to keep it we have no will made in Spain yet as we only bought it jan 2019 can you give me some advice

    • Amanda Thomas

      Good morning Vincent, I understand. Yes, we can help you with that. If you were to buy her share (50% I imagine) the taxes would be very high. There is a cheaper method in Spain called a dissolution of joint ownership or division of joint tenancy, when the ownership is just going on one name. The stamp duty is 1.5% as opposed to the much higher buying taxes, plus costs. I will send you an email letting you know what I need to calculate the expenses for putting it into your name. With kind regards.

  • Sandra

    I have filed for divorce in the UK. My husband and I own a property in Spain he wants to sell the apartment now I want to wait for the court to divide assets. He has always paid the bills. I have read somewhere that if I don’t Pay half the bills he can force an auction on the property without my consent is this true and how can I stop him

    • Amanda Thomas

      Good afternoon, I am sorry to hear this. You are both co-owners and it will be up to the UK Court (as their jurisdiction) to advise on how the property will be dealt with. That UK ruling does not directly affect the property in Spain, if it was granted that it was in his favour. He would have to use a Spanish Solicitor to start a proceeding in the Spanish Courts (using that ruling) to enforce the Judgement, as the law in Spain says no two owners can be forced to remain co-owners, so it would be a fighting dissolution of joint ownership proceeding. You would be contacted and offered the chance to arrange things amicably (more cheaply). It would be up to a Judge to say that the property can be sold at auction, he can’t just do it in the meantime as you remain co-owners. Legally you are responsible for half the bills such as council tax, community fees, but if you are not using the property then not for utilities. You need to speak to your UK solicitor and if we can help with any advice about the Spanish side we would. Often we have arranged for properties to go to one name, and just one person’s share of the bills over the years has been deducted from their part. Your starting point is with a UK lawyer. My email is sales@spanishsolutions.net. But at the moment, you are joint owners he cannot sell without your authority. You do not need to worry about that. Kind regards

  • Samantha Dunn

    Dear Sirs
    Please can I ask your expert opinion.
    I live in the uk and I have an apartment in Spain. I am currently in the process of divorce. I own the property in Spain I’m solely the owner on the deeds and also the morgage is in my name only.
    The apartment was purchased whilst we were married however as I say it’s solely in my name.
    Is my husband still entitled to any share of this apartment in Spain.
    Thank you in advance

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Samantha, Good morning. As you live in the UK it will be up to the UK Court (as their jurisdiction) to advise on how the property will be dealt with. This is a question for your UK lawyer as we can only advise on Spanish law. I am sorry we cannot help you, and I hope the divorce goes smoothly. Do let us know if there is anything else we can help you with, Kind regards

  • Sandra Pierce

    Dear Sirs,

    My husband and I, both in our early 60’s, were married this past February. He has 3 adult children and I also have 3 adult children. None of them live with us. My mother in law passed away this past April. She left the family home to her children, of which my husband is 1 of 5. He wants to buy out his siblings so the home will be ours completely. They have agreed. For this to happen I would have to pay 75% of the cost. I asked if the home would be in both our names and he said that since we are married that automatically I would be an equal owner and if he were to die the house would be shared by me and his 3 children. I don’t know if that means I would only own 25% or that his children would be splitting his 50%. I was born in the US, but also have UK citizenship. My questions are, is what my husband is saying true about me automatically being half owner? Where would I look in the marriage document to see what was stipulated about ownership? If I were to also die, would my children have a right to my half of the house? They live in the US. I currently do not have a legal will. Thank you.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Sandra, Thank you for your web enquiry. The first thing I would say is that your husband wanting to buy his siblings out of the home in Spain (I assume it is in Spain), by far the cheapest way to do that will be a dissolution of joint ownership, which means that the house could only go into one name. The person keeping the property usually pays the costs (but it can be agreed differently). If you wanted to be added as an owner then it would have to be done that the siblings were selling your both shares of the house and you purchasing. It would cost a lot more money. Regarding legal rights on divorce and death, divorce it would depend on the jurisdiction the divorce took place. But no you would not automatically be an owner or have rights in Spain in divorce. Death, it would depend what his Will said. Property in Spain is owned as shares and are passed on following a Will and a Probate process. If you have any assets in Spain or receive any I would advise you to make a Spanish Will to ensure your assets go to your children. If you have no Will it would need Letters of Administration from probably the UK (expensive and time consuming). I hope that helps, Kind regards Amanda

  • Sandra Pierce

    Dear Amanda,

    In summary, I will be paying 75% of the purchase and have nothing to fall back on unless my husband changes his will, which he said he will do so that I have an equal share with his children. That sounds like I would have 25%. Is that correct? Yes, the property is in Cáceres, Spain. Yes, he has some kind of legal buyout with his siblings to avoid the expensive other route you spoke of. How much do you charge for a Spanish will?
    Thank you so much!

    • Amanda Thomas

      Good morning Sandra, I am going to contact you by email to discuss this properly now, with kind regards, Amanda

  • Adam

    Hello. My girlfriends sister died in Spain. She had 2 kids and her partner is Spanish. She moved over 10 years ago and didn’t have a will as she was only 29. They bought a house in joint names. My girlfriends family all live in England and are worried he is bullying them to sign over her assets, they just want her asset (house) to go in her kids. Is there anything we should or shouldn’t be doing?

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Adam, I am so sorry to hear that. You don’t say the sister’s nationality. If she is British then a probate would need to be done and Letters of Administration obtained in the UK for use in a Spanish probate. The children would be the heirs with someone appointed guardian. Someone needs to use a solicitor to obtain Spanish probate on this. We can help, if you email, for the attention of Amanda. Kind regards

  • John

    Dear Amanda,

    In Summary my mother purchased a property in Spain 4 years ago with her partner (not married), they both have a 50% share in the property and this is registered with the Not­ary, recently her partner died, there is no Spanish will but there is a UK will which states a family member who is not my mother will inherit his property in Spain. The beneficiary has recently contacted my mother informing her that as the transaction for the property came out of my mothers partners bank account for the property she will get 100% as the beneficiary believes my mothers 50% is classed as a gift, is this correct?

    some background info, she has a legal 50% share, both my mother and her partner are stated on contract of sale when they purchased the property,

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Jonathan, This seems a little odd, and it sounds to me as if the non family member does not want to accept the inheritance and pay the inheritance tax therefore. But it is not that easy to renounce an inheritance (and if there is no Spanish Will and the partner was British then British law applies and his next of kin will be per the UK Will and UK Grant of Probate. Can you send me please a copy of the deeds, the Will and the communication with the beneficiary please and we will advise. Kind regards Amanda

  • Sam

    Hi, myself, two brothers & sister own a property in spain. I’m looking into purchasing the property outright , we are all UK residents , how is the best way of going about doing this & what tax implications would there be?

    • Amanda Thomas

      Hi Sam, we have a few articles about this transaction on our blogs, called dissolution of joint ownership of division of joint tenancy. Usually to transfer shares of property in Spain (as owned in percentages it means purchase and sale), which can be quite costly, as in the Valencia region for example purchase tax alone is 10%. However when there are four owners (or any number) going down to just one there is a special method called dissolution of joint ownership which has much lower costs as the buyer pays 1.5% stamp duty in the Valencia region. If you could please email us your deeds and your suma or IBI for the property we can calculate the costs for you, and explain the process. It is not a problem that you are in the UK, you can provide power of attorney by us emailing a draft. Clients have to be assessed for CGT where the property asset is located. In Spain, there is none on a division of joint tenancy but it is possible that the UK can charge CGT on any gain (the difference between purchase value and value of any transfer now). Please seek advice of an accountant or tax adviser in the UK in this respect. With kind regards, Amanda

  • GT

    I am a UK national living in Spain and married (to a Spanish national) with two children. The house where we live is currently in both our names. We are looking at a divorce with me moving back to the UK. The break up is ammicable and I do not forsee any issues, I would continue to assist with payments. Is there a way that I can renounce my share of the house and give her (and the children) sole ownership.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Hi, There are two issues here. Firstly the Spanish divorce, as you are living in Spain (more importantly the children are), this needs doing in Spain. Do you have anyone helping you with this? Secondly as part of the financial agreement, you could do a dissolution of joint ownership which is very common in these situations, and have the property transferred to her sole name. Please can you send us the deeds and suma/ibi for attention of Amanda and we will look at the costs for you. Kind regards

  • John

    Hi,
    İ am married and i would like to buy a property in Spain in solely my name, not jointly. İf i decide to sell this property in the future, do i need my spouse’s consent? Can i sell my property without my spouse’s consent? Thank you.

    • Jane

      Hi John

      If the property is in your sole name then you will not require anyone else’s consent to sell.

      Kind Regards

      Jane

  • Ricardo

    Hi Amanda
    My wife recently died, and we own an apartment in Spain. It is owned 50/50 and we both have Spanish mirrored Wills. What is the procedure to get the apartment into sole ownership? and do we need any UK documents translating ?
    Thanks, Ricardo

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Ricardo, I am going to send you an email now on this as a Spanish probate needs to be done and there are a few documents required. Kind regards, Amanda

  • Helen Reason

    Hi – my husband bought a property in Spain in his sole name in 2015. I put in 40% of the funds but do not have an NIE number so I am not a co-owner. We have been married 20 years, I pay him £100 per month towards the outgoings on the property which he transfers to a bank account also in his sole name. He has 3 children from a previous marriage. We have no children between us. On his death what will happen to the property?

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Helen, A usual Spanish Probate would follow whatever is in his Spanish Will first. If he had no Spanish Will, then his home country Will and if no Will at all then his next of kin according to his national law. For example, if he is British national law is to spouse first. However, if he is a Resident of Spain, it is a little of a grey area and maybe his children could challenge the Will, as Spanish Citizens have enforced heirs of children. I think it could be defended for you, but it would be best if he made a Spanish Will leaving his assets to you with the clause according to his national law (although this could be changed by him at any time). A Spanish Will saves time and money anyway when something happens to someone. Kind regards

  • Bogdana

    How much does it cost and what is the procedure of sharing the ownership over the apartment with a family member (both non-Spanish and not residents in Spain). Thank you

    • Jane

      Hi Bogdana

      I will e mail you directly for further information.

      Kind Regards

      Jane

  • keith foxall

    Hello. I and my father bought a small apartment in the Costa del Sol. as a little holiday home. my father passed away 5th of January leaving no Spanish will. he left the UK will. naming my self and my mother as only beneficiaries. what will happen to my father’s share of the apartment. we keep reading as he was a UK resident it will come under UK law. but then something pops up saying it’s Spanish law. any help or advice would be greatly received,

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Keith, Firstly, I am sorry about your father, please accept our sincere condolences. When there is no Spanish Will, a Spanish probate needs to be prepared to pass the assets to the inheritors which would be proved by the UK Will in your case and Grant of Probate. Following Spanish Law (well, in fact European Law), you can only use one Law for the whole inheritance. If you have assets in Spain, UK, France,….all of them will be ruled by the same Law. Therefore, if you are using the UK law for the assets in UK, no one can use the Spanish Law for the assets in Spain, you have to use UK law as well. Thus the Spanish Probate would follow what the UK Will says. I can help you with the probate and will write to you separately by email with with documents I would need. Kind regards Amanda

  • Rohima Siddiqi

    My husband bought a property in Spain solely in his name, if he dies what happens to the property? We both are UK residents.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Rohmina, Whether assets are in joint names or in a sole name, the process is the same in Spain. When someone dies the heir has to be proved (by Spanish Will, and if no Spanish Will, then by a home country Will and Grant of Probate with a Hague Apostille) and a Spanish probate process done. But it does also depend on your husband’s nationality, as for example, the French and Spanish and other nationalities have enforced inheritors. If he is British then the British can choose their next of kin and it follows a Will, and if no Will at all, by legal next of kin according to intestacy rules. Kind regards

  • Reshma

    My husband and I wish to retire in Spain, what dose he have to do in case of his death so I inherit the property as it’s in his sole name.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Good morning, whether non resident or resident the best thing is to have a Spanish Will naming you as heir. If that is not possible at the moment he should make sure he has one where you are now as whether sole or joint names, a Spanish probate needs doing to transfer assets into the heir’s name. Kind regards

  • Carol Horan

    Hi Amanda,
    We have are married and have resided in Spain for the last 14 years, our property is in My husbands name, we have will Spainish and english ,both stating the same, who ever goes passes first then the other will inherit , whenboth of us are gone then to my children , my eldest daughter being the executor of the will, My husband has no children of his own, how do I stand if he dies first.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Carol, Can you send me copies of both Spanish Wills and a copy of this message to sales@spanishsolutions.net and I will advise you for free, Kind regards, Amanda

  • Phil Thompson

    Hi,
    I own an apartment on the Costa Del Sol with my ex-wife and as part of the divorce she gave me all rights to the property, bank accounts and mortgage. I have been working with a Spanish Solicitor for over four years to transfer the property into solely my name with the solicitor having my ex-wife’s Power of Attorney. This has been a slow process and is held up currently by the bank transferring the mortgage in my name only and delayed by Coronavirus.
    My ex-wife has now died and there are no wills in UK or Spain, however the property was included in the divorce Financial Agreement.
    Where do I stand with regards to the transfer of the property to me in these circumstances? I struggle with my solicitor as this process has been ongoing for well over four years.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Phil, We would need to study the divorce agreement to check if we can enforce it at the notary (which could be quick and easy) or in Courts
      Please can you send me scanned the Deeds, IBI (council tax bill for the property) and the divorce agreement (if possible in Spanish), and we will advise. No charges are incurred until we inform in advance and I think we would be less expensive than one in the Costa Del Sol, With kind regards, Amanda

  • David Willing

    Hello – I am a British and have my Residencia here in Spain. My girlfriend is British but only has an NIE. We are buying an apartment in the Valencian region. She is providing the main source of funds for the property from a property sale of hers in the UK. It is a cash purchase with no mortgage. My question is; Do we need to have joint bank account to have the property in both our names? My girlfriend will be getting her Residencia, but we want to purchase the property first.

    • Nicola Ryan

      Morning David,

      Exciting times ahead for you both.

      To answer your question, you do not need a joint bank account to have the property in both of your names. The title deeds will confirm the owners of the property. In regard to the residencia. If your partner was not registered on a padron in 2020 (pre Brexit), she will not be able to apply for the residencia under the withdrawal agreement. She will need to apply for the non-lucrative visa before travelling to Spain. This would need to be applied for at her local Spanish Embassy in the UK, otherwise she will only be allowed into Spain for 3 months before having to leave again. Please see a link to their website below detailing the requirement’s ect, we hope this helps.

      http://www.exteriores.gob.es/Consulados/LONDRES/en/Consulado/Pages/Visas.aspx?fbclid=IwAR3mSiMuwaKldYr62JJvZhvMbTTaxa_vUn1a04WFVCmO8lmtTRBzbIyOEUs

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Nader

    Hello

    I have one flat paid cash and. Put 50 % to my wife and another flat it has mortgage and I put 50 % to her as well and third one is mortgage and it is under my name alone . I want to divorce with her and we have sparation in viennes the two flat sharing are rented out and the one under my name she lives there with my son and mortgage fees is high can I sell this flat even she is living in it as she can move to another flat of ours thx

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Nader, Thank you for your message, this would all need to be sorted out with the divorce or by agreement between you. You cannot sell without her signing as well. With kind regards, Amanda

  • Thomas

    My wife have any apartment with mortgage …PLUS we made business together too and I was who manage the business …but all legalization paper was with her name because she is Spanish …and I was a co atonoms …. this business is in process to close but have some assets should be sold before closing
    My questions are …
    1- Am I allowed to keep inside the family house she own till we finish the divorce process or till I find another place and job (My only income was via the business we are going to close)
    2- what about this business assists bought with her name during the operation period
    3- all our kids are double nationality and born out of Spain and gained the Spanish nationality via there mother… will be allowed to take them out of Spain to visit my family?

    • Amanda Thomas

      Good morning Thomas, If you are local to us, please can you send me an email with where you got married, (so we know what type of communidad your marriage is), and your queries and we will try to advise and help, but this would be best done by email as we may need a lot more information. With kind regards, Amanda

  • JoanBennie

    My partner and I have an apartment in Spain between us he is resident, I have applied, we are now splitting up where do I stand if the property is sold as far as financially thank you

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Joan, Well when you own property in Spain it is owned in percentages or shares so your 50% should come to you, unless a separate agreement is made as part of a separation agreement. Kind regards

  • Jennie Wight

    My married brother is about to divorce. During the marriage he paid for a Spanish apartment. His wife took care of all of the purchasing out there but unbeknownst to him put the flat solely in her name. He has just found out. Does this mean that the flat is hers to do as she likes, despite him funding it and also paying for all the bills and upkeep since? Or will it be sorted through Spanish Law as to who owns it? Yes I know he has been somewhat naive!

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Jennie, Oh dear. Yes, this would have to be resolved through the divorce process (maybe this is in the UK?) and proving that he funded the purchase solely and with proof of paying the bills since. If the divorce is in Spain, and has not been started, perhaps we can help if you email us. He does need a Spanish lawyer as also the property could be sold quite quickly and easily at the moment without his knowledge as he is not an owner. With kind regards. Amanda

  • Mary pryor

    My father in law owened a flat in spain..he passed away and my husband bought his sister out..( he paid her cash and I have a writen document stating she has given up right to flat and has no financial obligations to property) before my husband could transfer property into his name he also passed away…there is no Spanish will.. does the property transfer to me or will his sister have any rights to property..She is under the impression that the property has been transferred to my husband’s name. Where do I stand..

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Mary, We would need to see the written document scanned and emailed and the deeds to the property to advise whether the property would form part of your husband’s Spanish estate. I Imagine it would and then his heir would be as per his Spanish Will, home country Will if no Spanish Will or next of kin if intestate (you), but to confirm I need to see the documents, Kind regards, Amanda

  • Helen Tonkin

    I bought a villa in Spain, in Murcia regionon, in my own name but there is a mortgagee on it in my partners name. We are not married or have any Spanish union. We are now splitting up after 17 yrs. We are both in the process of Residencia application which was fone in time but not received it yet. Both have NIE and pay Autonimo…

  • Lynn

    Hi, i was wondering if you could give me abit of advice please.My xpartner and i seperated nearly 10 yrs ago having built a home and buisness in spain together i left to come back to england,i’ve had no contact since until yesterday, when he got intouch through a mutual friend asking me for my permission to sell the house even though the mortgage was in his name do i have any rights from the sale of the property.many thanks

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Lynn, You do not mention whereabouts your property is, but if the house is in joint names it cannot be sold without you signing a power of attorney and agreeing and you should receive half the sale proceeds, less anything you have not paid towards the property legally. If the property is in this area our lawyers can assist you. With kind regards Amanda

  • Lynn

    Hi Amanda the property is in the costa durada area

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Lynn, You need to contact a lawyer in that area. They probably will not be able to help now until September but they could be collecting some information from you now. Kind regards

  • Thomad

    Hi,
    I am married in Europe and I would like to buy a Spanish property under my sole name. My question is can i sell this property in the future without my spouse consent? We don’t have division of ownership regime but i will buy the property under my sole name. Thank you.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Hi, Please advise your nationality and where you were married. Where also are you looking to buy in Spain ? Kind regards

  • Cilla

    Hello
    I am a UK national. I am hoping to buy a property in the Valencia area in the autumn. Could you confirm that I will be able to put my partner(not married) on the deeds at the time of buying?
    Also, I will be buying it in cash. A mixture of a retirement lump sum, older ISA s and savings accounts for which some have little paperwork. I want to make sure there are no problems as regards ‘source of funds’ checks that I have read about. What is the best way to ensure this runs smoothly?

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Morning Cilla,

      Thank you for your enquiry.

      You will have no problem adding your partner to the title deeds. In regard to the source of the funds, the banks would no doubt need some clarification to where the money has come from. You could ask the organisations who hold your pensions, ISAs, ect to provide a statement as proof for. We hope this helps.

      Kine regards
      Nicola

  • John

    Hello

    I am a UK national living in Spain from before Brexit. My father (UK resident) and I are looking to buy a tourist rental property (with valid licence) in Spain (Menorca). My father will be providing the majority of the funds 85-90%. Given that I live in Spain and speak Spanish, I would be the one taking care of the holiday lettings. The question is, can we put the place in joint names? And if so, how are the proceeds from the rental income to be treated?

    • Nicola Ryan

      Good Afternoon John,

      Thank you for your enquiry.

      If the property is in both names, both owners will be liable to pay tax on the rental income, regardless if one person takes more than the other. We hope this helps.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Letitia Clarke

    Hi….I am divorced since 2011 from my husband who is still living in Spain in the house in the Alicante region with his now new girlfriend. My name is still on the deeds with my ex husband. If he dies before me would I inherit the house and also if he decides to sell the house…can he sell without my signature. I still have my Spanish will. Where do I stand legally with this.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Hi Letitia, In Spain property is owned in shares, so if you and your ex husband own 50% each it is very different from in the UK for example that the co-owner would not inherit. The person or people who would inherit would depend on who he has in his latest Spanish Will (or if no Spanish Will home country Will with Grant of Probate). He could leave his half to someone else. But your half is yours and your Spanish Will will state who will inherit (if it is him then you need to change it). Secondly no, he absolutely cannot sell with you signing in a Notary or signing a power of attorney, he has no right to sell. Usually a divorce agreement says what will be the arrangement with different houses, whether someone will buy the other person out. I hope this helps. Kind regards Amanda

  • Susan Dray

    Hi,
    My boyfriend and i bought a property in Spain 6 months ago, We are 50/50 split on the deeds. Things have not gone well for us and we are separating. We did not get around to making a will, how do i extract my half of the villa. I am a UK resident.
    Many Thanks

    • Amanda Thomas

      Hi Susan, I am sorry to hear that. As you say in Spain property is owned in shares, so 50% each. If you died your share would go to your legal heirs (by UK Will and Probate) or next of kin. What you need to do is to agree what to do with the villa as part of your separation, whether to sell or one buy the other out. If one buys the other out, the cheapest way to do this is a dissolution of joint ownership, which we could help with. Let me know how your discussions go, With kind regards, Amanda

  • Linda Brazier

    Hi, I am about to buy a house in Almeria with soley my money but I will be living with my partner,if we split up will he be able to claim anything from me,the house will be in my name only

    • Ian C.

      Hello Linda,

      Congratulations on taking the decision to buy your Spanish home. We wish you all the best of luck.
      We can of course protect you so that you are not in any danger of losing your home.
      We will put together a package to ensure your conveyancing, tax and as you mention legal rights are all protected.

      It’s a holiday in Spain today, but we’ll be back to you regarding this on Thursday,

      Kind wishes,

      Ian

  • Janet Uglehus

    Hi, my husband and I have a jointly owned property in Andalucia. He is Norwegian, legally resident in Spain. I am English, resident in Spain for over 20 years. We are retired and live in Spain permanently.
    My husband has 2 adopted estranged children (40 years old and 50 now). One lives in uk, the other lives in U.S.
    He does not want the adopted to inherit as they have been far from what you could call ‘family’.
    Can you advise the best way we could write our wills? I have 2 biological daughters, he has a biological son all in their late 30’s.
    Thank you.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Janet, I have already been in touch with you regarding your property and so will email you regarding this issue as it is complex. With kind regards, Amanda

  • Helen

    Hi, my partner and I bought a house together (it is jointly in our names, 50/50) just over a year ago. I used an inheritance to pay all the entrada/fees etc and he has paid the mortgage and bills since then. I gave up work when we moved there and have been slowly renovating the house etc. The house was valued at far more than we paid for it and we have since done a lot of work, increasing the value further. We have recently split, and he has decided he wants to keep the house. He is also saying that because I have not been contributing to bills etc that he shouldn’t have to buy me out of the house. I have only asked him to give me back what I put in in the first place. What are my rights in this matter? Can I force him to sell the property if he can’t buy me out? Do I owe him bills despite having a personal agreement that he would pay them? Can I invoice him for a year of housekeeping? If he buys me out, is it from what we paid or what the property is worth? Thanks in advance!
    Helen

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Helen, This would all need looking at as a part of a separation agreement. Generally someone gets back what they put in but it would need further study. If he buys you out it would need to be at an agreed figure between you but a minimum of the tax value. No two owners can be forced to remain co-owners if they do not wish to be so you could do an enforced dissolution of joint ownership through the Courts and a Judge would decide what would happen. With kind regards, Amanda

  • Sue

    Hi my husband and I bought house together 5 years ago in Orihuela costa before we married 3 years ago,both names on deeds, he has a son in late twenties he hasn’t seen or been in contact with since he was 6 weeks old I have 4 adult children. We both sold our own property to buy house payed in cash I want to write will but he totally refuses on the basis he wants to make sure his son will get his share which I’ve agreed, its been explained to him what would happen if we dont have a will in spain which were both residents in with no will in UK either I am not sure what I can do in this situation anymore

    • Amanda Thomas

      Hi Sue, Wills are individual and will cover any assets in Spain at the time you die. So your Will will cover your 50% of the property, any share of any bank account, a car in your name etc. So your Will can be done and it will be quicker and cheaper when something happens to you. If he does not make a Will then you will need to obtain Letters of Administration for him in the UK when he passes away which will take time. They follow the law of nationality so if he is British you will be the heir as his spouse. If he wants his son to get a share he should write a Spanish Will saying that. In the meantime you can arrange your own Will anyway. With kind regards

  • Fiona

    Hi, my partner and I live in the UK and have a civil partnership. We are thinking of retiring to Spain, but have been told Spain does not recognise UK civil partnerships. Would this mean we could own an apartment each without one of them being regarded as a second home? Also would this mean that Spanish laws of succession would allow each of us to leave our properties directly to our children and not each other?

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Fiona, In Spain Spanish civil partnerships are recognised ( “Pareja de hecho” ) but I am not sure of the process of having a UK one registered or recognised in Spain. This would need more study. But certainly regarding the issue of an apartment each and them being regarded as a second home I think you are referring to UK jurisdiction Taxes? So you would need to consult a UK accountant on this aspect. Regarding the last question, you are British in Nationality and thus can choose your heir (make sure you make a Spanish Will choosing that it is according to the law of your nationality). To your children would probably be more wise for inheritance tax efficiency in any event. I hope this helps. Kind regards, Amanda

  • Gordon Martin -& Linda Hewitt

    Amanda,

    My wife is a French National living in Spain for 25 years. She solely owns the house that she bought in Mallorca in 2008 where she lived with her family. We recently married in Canada in January 2021. I am Canadian. I have not lived in Spain. She is 66 and I am 58. She is now looking to sell her property (sole owner). We have been asked by Spanish authorities to have me say it is okay to sell her house? Does it make sense that she would need my okay to sell her property? She is also concerned that if they require my permission to sell the house, that they may deem her required to pay capital gains tax if I am not 65. It all seems strange to me given she is sole owner.

    • Nicola Ryan

      Thank you for your enquiry Gordon,

      If your name is not stated on the title deeds, and your wife is the sole owner, no permission should be needed to sell the property. It may be best to go back to the Solicitor dealing and ask why this has been mentioned, is required.

      We hope this helps
      Nicola

  • Emily claridge

    Hello ,
    My grandmother and I have a house in spain both of our names are on the deeds , we are considering selling , will the money be divided 50/50 ?
    Regards
    Emily

    • Nicola Ryan

      Thank you for your enquiry Emily,

      In a normal sale, the proceeds from the property will be divided according to the ownership stated on the deeds. In your case this would be 50/50.

      Should you need any assistance with the sale of your property, please do not hesitate to contact us, we would be delighted to help.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Ann Brigg

    What is the tax implication when a Spanish property is sold where ownership is 50% in one name with the other 50% in three different names in equal shares if a capital gain arises?
    With thanks

    • Nicola Ryan

      Thank you for your enquiry Ann,

      The capital gains would be calculated for each person, according to their share. We hope this helps.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Hilary Grainger

    Question, I now own my parents villa in Andalucia, father died 1996, mother 2018, I married a spaniard 1994, when my mother died I really got screwed for tax, over 14,000 euros, my husband has made NO contribution to the property, previously the villa was in my name, fathers, mother. I am in the process of trying to sort out my will as I am now 71. can I write out my husband in my will, as should he die after me, I do not want anything I owned previously being passed on to his family.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Hilary, If you are British or Irish you can choose the law of your nationality and to choose who you wish your heir/heirs to be so do not need to include your husband nor advise him. With kind regards

  • Douglas Goddard

    We purchased a property in Spain and my wife and I names are on the deeds. I paid 100% for the property including taxes and purchase costs. My wife now wants to separate and wants me to “Buy her out” she is stating that she is entitled to 50% value of the property in cash. What is the situation in Spain if a house is joint names with only one party making 100% contribution.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Douglas, I am sorry to hear that. This is not simple in Spain unfortunately, we have not seen the purchase deed but usually when you buy in joint names you state in front of the Notary and Tax Office that the money came from both of you, and it is a public document. So to argue otherwise there needs to be strong evidence to prove why this public document was not correct. In addition in marriage in Spain assets are not each person’s but again it needs to be looked as part of the overall separation and division of assets and income and studied. It is a complicated matter. If you are both in the UK then I imagine the separation would be done in the UK and we would need to see that agreement and to have further information and to quote to assist. With kind regards, Amanda

  • Amanda

    Hi, I have been married for 11 years. I am english my husband spanish. He bought our family home in his name only. We have 5 children, they are schooling in england so i travel back and forwards during school holidays. For reasons personal we are divorcing. Am I intitled to half of the family home if we sell?

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Amanda, The divorce has to be done where the children reside and are schooled, therefore you need a UK lawyer’s advice on this. With kind regards

  • Nick Harland

    My wife and I are legally wed in the UK. We wish to buy a property in Spain, which if the value is over 500,000 Euros we can apply for a Golden Visa for Spanish residency. However to qualify for this the property needs to be in a single name not joint names (otherwise it would need to be 1 million euros jointly) . We havent yet decided who’s name the property should be in i.e. husband or wife. However we are planning on making a Spanish will such that if the partner with name on the property should die, the property ownsership should transfer to the surviving partner. Is this a valid approach? Can we also draw up an agreement to cover divorce such that the property is split 50-50 or would the fact that we are married in the UK cover that? Overall we want to be best covered should the unforseen happen. What advice can you give?

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Nick, I will answer you by private mail. Kind regards

  • Simon copperfield

    Hi
    My Father soley owned a property in spain and has now sadly passed away and stated in his Spanish will it is to be left to myself and 3 other children shared equally meaning a 25% share each, unfortunately one of the siblings has no interest and would like to sell there 25% share can they force the sale if the 3 other 25% shares don’t wish to sell?

    Thank you

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Simon, I can help you with this. First of all nothing can be done until the probate in Spain has been completed which takes time. Afterwards, yes they could take it to Court if you do not all agree to buy them out, but it would be expensive and take a long time. With kind regards Amanda Thomas

  • Carlos Garcia

    I live in Spain with my family and I have a brokerage account in the US where my wife and I are Joint tenants with Rights of Survivorship (JTWROS). Is it ok if I declare 100% of the assests in that account to local tax authorities so that my wife doesn’t have to declare that until I die?

    • Nicola Ryan

      Thank you for your enquiry Carlos,

      You would not be able to declare the 100% assets as the account is in joint names. You and your wife would need declare 50% each, or you cold try to get the account transferred into your sole name. We hope this helps.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Chris shore

    My wife and I are selling our house which is solely in her name, we have lived here over 3 years. After the sale we are separating and splitting the money 50/50, we are both Spanish residents, she is 58 I am 65 how do we handle cgt

    • Nicola Ryan

      Thank you for your enquiry Chris,

      The tax liability is only for the person named on the deeds. Only your wife has to declare this sale in her tax return in 2024 when it is due, and pay any tax if applicable.

      Kind regards
      Nicola

  • Brian Thompson

    Hi, soon my partner (who is Lithuanian) will buy a property in Spain. I will be contributing around half the cost of the property as a loan (I am English). We are not married and I do not wish to be a joint owner of this property. Can I just be included on the property deeds during the purchase, as a lender, in the same way as a bank or other lending institution? I have a Spanish Will and can I state in that Will that whatever is still outstanding on this loan at my death can be written off in favour of my partner?

    • Nicola Ryan

      Thank you for your enquiry Brian,

      This would need to be studied and referred to the notary. Can we confirm where the property is please.

      Nicola

  • John Smith

    Hi if I solely own my Spanish home and my common law spouse moves in with me, if we were to split, would they be entitled to any of my assets? Would the situation be different if we were married? Upon my death, can I specify in my will that I want to leave all of my assets to my children even if the common law spouse or married spouse survives me? Thank you

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear John, please email us and advise where the property is and can you clarify is “common law spouse” is anything done legally, or you are both single and live together? Also do you live in Spain and for how long? Kind regards

  • Daniel Rai

    Hi there,

    I recently bought a house in Spain (circa 7 years ago). I used my pension lum sum and monies from a previous house to buy the property and renovate it. I did this with my partner (not married) – the condition of us getting the house together (name on the deed) was that he was going to pay for half of the property once he received his pension lump sum. She has not paid for any of the property or upkeep. We are now separating, and she wants to be paid out of the house (even though she has not contributed anything to the property). Could you please let me know what my position is?

    • Amanda Thomas

      Good morning Daniel, I will respond to you directly by email, Kind regards Amanda

  • Bernadette

    My partner and I ( not married – engaged and live together) moved to Spain 2018 and own a property 50/50.
    We are now moving back to uk and property has sold.
    The intention is to buy a property together in uk and we have one we have offered on but in uk you’re not owners until sign on dotted line.
    We have had few ups and downs and my concern is once Villa sold in Spain and money is in his bank ( he’s arranged a currency firm to exchange money and put in his own personal bank in uk ) i don’t have a leg to stand on re the money.
    The currency firm haven’t asked if i want my 50% to be paid to his bank. I don’t even think they’re aware its 50/50 as my partner talks to them on his phone and never mentions me at all.
    We have a solicitor who they are making contact with on his say so. Do they need my permission for my share to go directly to his bank? Will the solicitor have to confirm i agree to it? I would prefer it in mine, then should things change im not left homeless with no money.
    Thank you

    • Amanda Thomas

      Hi Bernadette, Yes, you need to ask your solicitor to make sure that your 50% is paid to your bank account, with kind regards.

  • Karen Diane Mallett

    Hi there, my question is a tricky one. I am getting a house with a very close friend in Callosa, Alicante. We are both residents of Spain. We were going to put both of our names on the deeds, but we are worried about the inheritance tax, (and not being married), if one of us dies. We are therefore thinking of putting the house solely in his name. I am 66 and he is 72, he has 3 grown sons to whom he wants to leave the property to after I die. We were wondering if I would be able to live my life out on the property if we had a will stating this and then they would inherit the property when I die. Sumising of course he dies first. I have no family but just want a roof over my head in my old age and am not bothered about owning half. ( I would hate to be made homeless at my age) Thank you, K

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Karen, We do understand. The best way is that he buys the bare ownership and you buy the usufruct. He makes a Will leaving the house to children. You don’t need to do anything (not even a will), because the usufruct is automatically cancelled when you die.

      If he dies first, the house is transferred to children and you continue living in the house as keeping the usufruct. If you die first, the usufruct is cancelled and when he dies the house is transfer to children (full dominium). We can help with conveyancing if required

  • Karen Diane Mallett

    Dear Amanda, Thank you so much for your straightforward advice, which I will definitely take on board.
    And when the time comes we will get back to you regarding the conveyancing.
    In the meantime would you be able to reply privately with the figure we would be expected to pay?
    Kind regards Karen.

    • Amanda Thomas

      Dear Karen, You just need to contact enquiries@spanishsolutions.net saying you need a quote for conveyancing with the details of the property that you have, and one of my colleagues will help. With kind regards Amanda

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